NSF Specialist Training and Security Fundamentals Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Where is the U.S. Navy Strategic Communications Wing One located?
• Which term best describes nonjudicial punishment proceedings?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Atlantic located?
• How many steps are in the ORM process?
• Which level is described as the most secure?
• Which statement best describes the order of restricted areas from least to most secure?
• Nonjudicial punishment proceedings require what type of proceeding?
• Which organization holds responsibility for Navy Security Program course curricula?
• When was the MA rate re-established?
• Which practice is essential for mobile device security in BYOD?
• Which of the following is a form of terrorism?
• Which role includes protective detail, security driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles), site advances, protective surveillance, and command post functions?
• What are the three zones in defense in depth?
• What does data encryption at rest protect?
• Which branch oversees MWD veterinary services?
• What is the primary purpose of physical security?
• What is the primary function of personnel assigned to Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• Which zones are used at an Entry Control Point (ECP)?
• Which branch is responsible for MWD veterinary services?
• What is the required clearance level?
• Whose authority is independent of rank and seniority on board a HSB?
• Which ship fired 400 rounds of 16-inch projectiles in practice but deployed with only 20 rounds on board?
• Which of the following is NOT a motivation category of terrorism as listed?
• What is the primary goal of Data Loss Prevention?
• Why hash and salt passwords, and which algorithms are preferred?
• In TLS, what does certificate chain validation ensure during the handshake?
• What controls help manage mobile devices in an enterprise BYOD program?
• What is the rank designation for Mark Mayo?
• What does the ABCD model stand for?
• What is the minimum amount of blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• Which statement differentiates SIEM from EDR in cybersecurity operations?
• Which statement accurately describes RBAC, ABAC, MAC, and DAC as access-control models?
• Which statement is true regarding the blank ammunition for MWD training per MWD?
• What is the mission of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• Where are the Strategic Weapons Facilities located?
• Who sets the pace of the motorcade?
• What is the minimum service period after MWD Handler School?
• What is the goal of a RAM program?
• Which role provides direct and indirect, individual and group counseling to no more than 40 prisoners?
• Which does encryption in transit primarily protect?
• What is the purpose of PPRs?
• Which role handles site advances and protective surveillance?
• Which statement best describes FPCON Charlie?
• What does NCF stand for?
• What is the purpose of disaster recovery and business continuity testing, and how frequently is it typically conducted?
• Who approves the FCPON Level program?
• Which statement correctly describes MFA factors?
• The minimum service after MWD Handler School is measured in which unit?
• Which of the following is NOT a stage in the incident response lifecycle?
• Which are the main RMF steps used for securing information systems?
• What does Recovery Point Objective (RPO) measure in disaster recovery planning?
• Which statement about Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) is correct?
• Which practice applies to protecting sensitive data while it is in use?
• In RMF, what is the purpose of continuous monitoring?
• Where is the Strategic Weapons Facility Pacific located?
• Which statement correctly describes encryption at rest, encryption in transit, and basic key-management concepts?
• In vulnerability management, which activity is core?
• What is the ROC tier of the Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• PPRs are designed to identify, track, assess, and neutralize what?
• What term best describes a tool used by personnel at all levels to identify, assess, and manage risks?
• Which step follows Final Surveillance in the cycle?
• The coxswain is responsible for what on an HSB?
• What is forward secrecy, and how do DHE/ECDHE ciphersuites provide it?
• Which role is responsible for protective driving (lead, limo, and follow vehicles)?
• Time Critical Risk Management (TCRM) refers to applying ORM at what stage?
• Which event contributed to the MA rating becoming security/reaction force capable?
• Which establishment was created by the Chief of Naval Operations to oversee NECF and develop new capabilities?
• Which threat is addressed by physical security?
• What is network segmentation and its benefits and typical methods to implement it?
• Which measure helps prevent untrusted apps from being installed on devices?
• Which statement about Restricted Areas Level 2 is true?
• How do stateless and stateful firewalls differ, and what features do next-generation firewalls add?
• What is the 10th General Order?
• Which of the following is NOT a Seawolf-class submarine?
• Which role conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, and manages the command physical security and law enforcement program?
• What is the second step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• In vulnerability management, what is typically the next step after asset discovery and vulnerability scanning?
• What is the purpose of certificate revocation mechanisms such as CRL or OCSP?
• In the seven-step terrorist attack planning cycle, which step is Tactical Level Planning?
• Which attack uses captured data replayed to impersonate a user?
• Who is typically responsible for certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• What is Single Sign-On (SSO), and how does identity federation enable it?
• Which additional factor is commonly included in MFA beyond the three core factors?
• Who is responsible for overall good order and discipline?
• What describes the duties of the Vehicle Inspection Sentry?
• Under PBIED policy, discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies which action?
• Which term is listed as a FPCON level?
• What is the purpose of ongoing risk monitoring and reassessment after controls are implemented?
• What does the CIA triad stand for, and how do they relate to security design?
• Which is the least secure restricted area type?
• Why is certificate validation during a TLS handshake important?
• On a high-speed support boat, who supervises all security department watch section responsibilities?
• Which practices are commonly used for protecting sensitive information across data at rest, in transit, and in use?
• Which submarines are part of the Seawolf class?
• What is another name for the Naval Construction Force?
• Who is the Chief of Naval Operations’ executive agent for Force Protection (FP)?
• What are the two most common searches?
• Which vulnerability arises when manipulating padding reveals plaintext?
• Under which TYCOM do we fall?
• Detained refers to which prisoner status?
• Which role manages the command AT and Force Protection program, trains security forces, plans and conducts security force drills, assesses security force capabilities, conducts vulnerability assessments, tactically deploys security assets to neutralize threats, conducts investigations, processes crime scenes, manages the command physical security and law enforcement program, and conducts customs inspections?
• Which sequence correctly outlines the steps of a basic risk assessment?
• Who is the Center for Security Forces Course Curriculum Model Manager?
• In STRIDE threat-modeling, which category describes an attacker pretending to be someone else?
• Which activity assesses risks associated with external software providers?
• Which is the first step in the terrorist attack planning cycle?
• What is the minimum number of days to activate ASF during increased FPCONs?
• What action did MA2 Mark Mayo take during the incident described?
• Which practice is a common pitfall in password storage?
• Which defense protects against MITM by validating server certificates?
• Which statement emphasizes saluting officers and colors not cased?
• Adjudged describes which prisoner status?
• What is the primary purpose of tabletop exercises in security readiness?
• Which factors determine risk likelihood and impact in a risk assessment?
• Which statement accurately describes the difference between hardware security modules (HSMs) and cloud KMS in key management?
• Which data classification level requires the most stringent handling and access controls?
• What is a key practice for mitigating phishing threats?
• Which statement about discretionary access control (DAC) versus mandatory access control (MAC) is accurate?
• What are the components of the Deadly Force Triangle?
• Which option lists the third step in the ABCD model?
• Who is responsible for the certification and operational performance of the assigned NSF?
• Which duty is responsible for supervising the security force, maintaining order, carrying out the Plan of the Day, and ensuring the health, welfare, and safety of staff members and prisoners?
• Which statement represents the blank ammunition requirement for MWD training per MWD?
• Which control provides verification of user identity during sign-in?
• Which role is primarily tasked to conduct criminal investigations involving UCMJ violations and other criminal acts not pursued by NCIS?
• Which hull numbers correspond to the Seawolf-class submarines?
• What is the role of the Registration Authority (RA) in a PKI system?
• What is the first step of the ABCD model?
• If a TLS certificate fails validation, what should a compliant client do?
• Data classification and labeling are used to do what?
• What best describes a nonjudicial punishment proceeding?
• Under PBIED policy, the statement that discovering or recognizing a PBIED justifies using deadly force is true. Which option reflects this?
• Which of the following lists are common physical security controls to protect information assets?
• Which statement accurately describes eligibility for classified information among military NSF personnel?
• What is the principle of least privilege, and how is it commonly enforced?
• What is the purpose of Anti-Terrorism (AT) measures?
• Which action is NOT a listed form of terrorism?
• Who conducts customs inspections?
• Which role on an incident response team focuses on communications and legal liaison during incidents?
• Which activity is a common form of disaster recovery and business continuity testing?
• How do RBAC and ABAC differ in terms of permission assignment?
• Which statement captures a core principle of Zero Trust architecture?
• What is the role of hardware security modules (HSMs) in key management?
• The attack on the USS Cole occurred on which date?
• Which statement best describes the Seawolf-class submarines?
• Which is a key consideration in patch management?
• Which statement best differentiates authentication from authorization?
• Which is the most secure restricted area type?
• Which of the following is listed as a form of terrorism?
• Which tool helps verify the integrity of vendor-supplied software?
• The MA rating’s security/reaction force capability was demonstrated by which event?
• Who coordinates underway security matters?
• What are the key differences between IDS and IPS and their typical detection approaches?
• Which duty enforces a 2-person policy within the area for ABNCP configured aircraft?
• Within the cloud shared responsibility model, how should encryption be managed between customer and provider?
• In NIST SP 800-53, what best describes a control baseline and its importance?
• Which practice enables testing of phishing awareness?
• Which practice improves the integrity of security logs and monitoring through tamper-evident storage?
• Which practice facilitates reporting phishing and security incidents?
• Which approach reflects integrating security activities into the software development lifecycle?
• Software supply chain risk management primarily focuses on?
• Which position carries out the Plan of the Day?
• Which of the following is a basic key-management concept?
• What defensive technique reduces timing or power leakage?
• Which detection approach identifies threats by recognizing deviations from established normal behavior?
• What is the significance of the Second MCPON John \"Jack\" Whittet?
• Which statement best describes symmetric cryptography?
• What does TACAMO stand for?
• Which paygrades are assigned to the SWF?
• Are contractor personnel ever assigned to perform law enforcement duties?
• Which VPN type uses TLS to secure channels and is typically accessed via standard web browsers?
• What are the main steps of a TLS handshake and the role of certificates?
• What are the key security considerations for VPNs (remote access) and how do IPsec and TLS VPNs differ?
• Which role in an incident response team is primarily responsible for coordinating the response?
• Who approves the mission of Strategic Weapons Facilities?
• USFF stands for which command?
• Which of the following is true about Restricted Areas Level 3?
• Which practice ensures reliable log timestamps for security monitoring?